Why did it happen? Why was it revolutionary? When did it happen? What were its driving forces? Why then and not earlier or later? Why Britain/Europe?

Historiography has moved away from an abrupt, quick transformation. Usually placed in the century from 1750-1850

Traditional narrative: wave of heroic British inventors unleashing a "wave of gadgets"

By 1960s, approach had shifted to a functionalistic analysis of socio-economic conditions. Recipe for industrialisation at the right place and right time

According to this view: once these factors were in place, the transition to modernity was inevitable, inexorable, and irreversible.

NW European / British achievement. Non-European countries like China failed to industrialise by lacking these ingredients

Two distinct phases of irreversible human development: feudal and modern

Traditional (pre-Newtonian): capped by availabl land, trade opportunties and technological improvement. Malthusian trap mechanism stymies output gains

Pre-conditions for take-off: sufficient accumulation of knowledge, realisation of potentialities flowing from science and technology, availbility of savings for capital supply, disposible income for consumer demand

Availability of plentiful capital and ways to direct this to industry (financial networks, imperial profits)

Capitalists.inventors requiring an environment conducive to business (no fear of expropriation, incl. of intellectual property). Inclusive institutions

Invention required education, literacy, scientific method, and urbanisation

Consumers posess disposable income, resulting from higher wages

High wages necessitated investment in labour-saving technology (unlike Asian countries, which kept using cheap labour). Productivity increases with mechanisation

Agricultural revolution putting an end to period famines, allowing consumers to consume without fear