If the government forces redistribution of wealth for any social service, then an individual’s labor belongs to the community rather than himself. At face value, this idea may sound peachy; however, upon further evaluation, this concept of ownership sounds frighteningly close to slavery, in which a man’s labor is taken from him without fair reward. Even if an individual is willing to work as a slave, isn’t slavery still morally wrong? Similarly, even in an idealized situation, if the governed agree to socialist principles, the government taking an individual’s property or money is still morally wrong in principle