REG 6

REG610813

Under Treasury Circular 230, in which of the following situations is a CPA prohibited from giving written advice concerning one or more federal tax issues?

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A practitioner's written advice concerning one or more federal tax issues must be based on the following :

(i) Reasonable factual and legal assumption, including assumptions on future events.

(ii) Reasonably consider all relevant facts and circumstances that the practitioner knows or reasonably should know.

(iii) Reasonable efforts to identify and ascertain the facts relevant to written advice on each federal tax matter.

(iv) Not rely on representations, statements, findings or agreements of the taxpayer or any other person if the reliance on them is reasonable.

(v) Relate applicable laws and authorities to facts. and

(vi) Not in evaluating a federal tax matter, take into account the possibility that a tax return will not be audited or that a matter will not be raised in an audit.

REG610814

An IRS agent has just completed an examination of a corporation and issued a no change report. Which of the following statements about that situation is correct?


When an IRS agent on completion of the examination issues a no change report, it indicates that the IRS agent has accepted the return as filed and there are no proposed adjustments at this time. A closed year may be open only in case of fraud or similar misrepresentations.

REG616123

To comply with a director's duty of loyalty to a corporation, what action(s) should a director take when presented with a corporate opportunity?

The director's duty of loyalty implies that they must put the interest of the corporation before their personal interest.
A corporate opportunity presented to a director must be duly re-directed by the director to the company first. If the company rejects the offer, the director may choose to accept it .

REG612053

Under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act. And in the absence of the contrary agreement by the partners which of the following events is most likely to dissolve a limited partnership?

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Dissolution of a limited partnership takes place upon the following events:

1) Completion of time period specified in certificate.

2) Occurrence of event specified in partnership agreement.

3) Unanimous written consent of all partners.

4) Dissolution of court decree when not practical to continue partnership.

5) Events that cause the partnership business to be illegal.

6) Withdrawal of general partner.

Therefore, when the only general partner withdraws, the business effectively terminates.

REG612056

Under the Revised Model Business Corporation Act, following what type of corporate acquisition does the acquiring corporation automatically become liable for all obligations of the acquired corporation?

In a merger, the acquiring corporation becomes liable for the obligations of the acquired corporation.

REG610782

Which of the following can be an advantage of a limited liability company over an S corporation?

Limited Liability Company (LLC) is unique in the sense that it enjoys both the benefits if a partnership as well as a Corporation. It is created formally like a Corporation where members have limited liability and functions like a partnership where taxes are paid at member level via pass-through income instead of the corporation paying taxes. An added benefit when compared to S Corporation is that, unlike S Corp. which pays tax on distribution of appreciated property, the distribution of appreciated property to members of LLC is tax-free.

REG618035

Which of the following actions may be taken by a corporation’s board of directors without stockholder approval?

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Board of Directors are small group of shareholder representatives that meet 1 to 12 times per year to set policy and make broad decisions.They are in charge of general operations of the corporation; therefore, while deciding on purchasing substantially all of the assets of another corporation it does not require stockholder approval.

Option (b),(c) and (d) are incorrect because shareholders approval is required for:

  1. Amending Articles of Incorporation
  1. Business combinations (M&As)
  1. Dissolution of the corporation, i.e., selling substantially all of the assets of the corporation
  1. Liquidating dividend
  1. Loans to directors (not required for officers, even if officer is a director)

REG618323

A parent corporation owned more than 90% of each class of the outstanding stock issued by a subsidiary corporation and decided to merge that subsidiary into itself. Under the Revised Model Business Corporation Act, which of the following actions must be taken?

Merger of a subsidiary that is already 90% owned by the parent does not require support of a majority of board and stockholder as it is not considered a material event requiring consent. However, any shareholder that dissents from the combination is entitled to make a written demand for appraisal of their shares which the board must then repurchase at the appraised amount.

REG612047

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Under the Uniform Partnership Act, which of the following statement is (are) correct regarding the effect of the assignment of an interest in a general partnership?

I. The assignee is personally responsible for the assigning partners share of past and future partnership debts.

II. The assignee is entitled to the assigning partner's interest in partnership profits and surplus on dissolution of the partnership.

Assignment is typically made to secure a loan. Assignee is not substituted as a partner without the consent of all other partners and does not receive right to manage partnership, to have access to accounting records, to inspect books, to possess and own any individual partnership property.

REG618828

Acorn and Bean were general partners in a farm machinery business. Acorn contracted, on behalf of the partnership, to purchase 10 tractors from Cobb Corp. Unknown to Cobb, Acorn was not authorized by the partnership agreement to make such contracts. Bean refused to allow the partnership to accept delivery of the tractors and Cobb sought to enforce the contract. Cobb will

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A general partner in a partnership has the apparent authority to make any contract necessary to carry out the business of the partnership with the exception of the following which require unanimous consent: (Need to get unanimous consent ASAP for the following transactions)

Admitting a new partner

Selling or pledging partnership property

Admitting or submitting a legal claim

Promising to pay the debts of another

In this case, since Acorn and Bean were in the farm machinery business, it creates the impression that a partner would have the authority to buy tractors which is within the scope of the usual activities of the farming business. This apparent authority of Acorn would allow Cobb to prevail and enforce the contract.

REG618312

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Cobb, Inc., a partner in TLC Partnership, transfers its partnership interest to Bean, who is not made a partner. After the transfer, Bean asserts the rights to

I. Participate in the management of TLC.

II. Cobb's share of TLC's partnership profits.

Bean is correct as to which of these rights?

A partner may transfer his partnership interest in profits without the need for approval by the other partners. However, the right to participate in management or right to use partnership property are not transferable. Since Bean is not made a partner, he is only entitled to Cobb's share of partnership profits and cannot participate in the management of TLC.

REG610764

Under which of the following circumstances would a promoter be relieved of personal liability on contracts entered into while engaged in forming a corporation?

Prior to formation of a corporation, a promoter might enter into contracts on behalf of the corporation. Since the promoter performs work before the corporation itself exists, a contract by the promoter is not binding on the corporation unless the Board adopts the contract. A promoter is personally liable on the contract unless the other party releases the promoter through a novation, substituting the corporation for the promoter as the obligator on in the contract.

REG610708

A CPA assists a taxpayer in tax planning regarding a transaction that meets the definition of a tax shelter as defined in the Internal Revenue Code. Under the AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services, the CPA should inform the taxpayer of the penalty risks unless the transaction, at the minimum, meets which of the following standards for being sustained if challenged?

Generally tax preparers are responsible for the errors on the tax return and are subject to various penalties. When recommending any position on tax return, it is the preparer's responsibility to advise the client on the potential penalties that may be imposed by the IRS if the position is not sustained. When dealing with transactions relating to tax shelters, the AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services requires that CPA recommend/inform a taxpayer of the potential penalties unless the transaction meets the more likely than not standard (more than 50% probability of success of sustaining).

REG610726

Under Treasury Circular 230, which of the following actions of a CPA tax advisor is characteristic of a best practice in rendering tax advice?


Under Treasury Department Circular 230, a CPA tax advisor's best practice includes establishing relevant facts, evaluating the reasonableness of assumptions and representations, and arriving at a conclusion supported by the law and facts in a tax memorandum.

REG610756

n accounting firm was hired by a company to perform an audit. The company needed the audit report in order to obtain a loan from a bank. The bank lent $500,000 to the company based on the auditor's report. Fifteen months later, the company declared bankruptcy and was unable to repay the loan. The bank discovered that the accounting firm failed to discover a material overstatement of assets of the company. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a suit by the bank against the accounting firm? The bank

Can sue the accounting firm for the loss of the loan because of negligence.
The plaintiff can be anyone with privity including the client, intended third party beneficiary or foreseen third party (allowed in states which follow 2nd Restatement of Torts). The bank in this case was an intended third party beneficiary and therefore can sue the accounting firm for the loss of loan because of negligence.

REG610763

Under the position taken by a majority of the courts, to which third parties will an accountant who negligently prepares a client's financial report be liable?

Generally, an accountant in the performance of an engagement must exercise due professional care expected of an ordinary prudent CPA. According to the 2nd Restatement of Torts followed by the majority of states, an accountant who negligently prepares a client's financial report will be liable to anyone in privity (client) and intended third party beneficiary.

REG610771

Which of the following pairs of elements must a client prove to hold an accountant liable for common law negligence?


Breach of the accountant's duty of care and loss.


REG610791

A CPA prepared a tax return that involved a tax shelter transaction that was disclosed on the return. In which of the following situations would a tax return preparer penalty not be applicable?

A tax return preparer will not be subject to penalty for a tax shelter transaction that has been reported on a tax return with adequate disclosures, provided it meets the more likely than not standard. According to this standard, a tax shelter transaction must have more than 50% chance of being sustained on its merits to avoid penalty.

REG610816

A CPA prepared a tax return for a client who will receive a refund check. The client is traveling abroad and asked the CPA to pick up the check at the client's home address. Under Treasury Circular 230, any of the following actions, if taken by the CPA relating to the refund check, would be a violation of the rules of practice before the Internal Revenue Service, except

According to the Treasury Department Circular 230 a Practitioner who prepares tax returns, cannot endorse or otherwise negotiate any refund check issued to a client by the government.

REG610826

Assuming appropriate disclosure is made, which of the following fee arrangements generally would be permitted under the ethical standards of the profession?

Option (a) is incorrect because CPA providing audit services must be independent in fact and appearance and therefore provide investment advisory services to audit client and accept fees for the same.

REG610840

Under the ethical standards of the profession, which of the following investments by a CPA in a corporate client is an indirect financial interest?


From the given choices, a CPA who has an investment in corporate client held through a regulated mutual fund represents indirect material or immaterial financial interest in the stock of the company, thus impairing independence.


Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect because they represent direct financial interest in client.

REG611924

At a confidential meeting, an audit client informed a CPA about the client's illegal insider- trading actions. A year later, to testify in a criminal trial against the client. The CPA was asked to testify to the meeting between the CPA and the client. After receiving immunity, the CPA should do which of the following?

In this case as the CPA is aware of the client's illegal insider-trading actions, he/she should discuss the entire conversation including illegal acts based on the general rule. Additionally, if there is an enforceable subpoena, the CPA is required to discuss all information about the client as per the Code of Professional Conduct and Ethics.

REG618240

Hark, CPA, failed to follow generally accepted auditing standards in auditing Long Corp.'s financial statements. Long's management had told Hark that the audited statements would be submitted to several banks to obtain financing. Relying on the statements, Third Bank gave Long a loan. Long defaulted on the loan. In a jurisdiction applying the Ultramares decision, if Third sues Hark, Hark will


However in jurisdictions that follows Ultramares vs. Touche, only those in privity and intended third party beneficiary can file a negligence lawsuit against the CPA. In this case, though Third bank is a third party beneficiary that can be forseen by the CPA, there was no privity of contract between Third bank and Hark. Therefore, Hark will win.

REG618244

A CPA will most likely be negligent when the CPA fails to


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Negligence is the absence of due professional care. A CPA is considered to be negligent when previously discussed errors are not corrected. Additionally, a CPA is negligent when he fails to:

(1) Disclose information to client and

(2) Does not follow GAAP/GAAS standards

REG618248

Which of the following statements best describes whether a CPA has met the required standard of care in conducting an audit of a client's financial statements?

An accountant has a duty in the performance of an engagement to exercise due professional care expected of an ordinarily prudent CPA. Standards that guide the determination of a CPA’s duty of due care are: GAAS & GAAP, Customs of the profession, state and federal statues, court decisions and contracts with client.

REG618249

Which of the following is the best defense a CPA firm can assert in defense to a suit for common law fraud based on their unqualified opinion on materially false financial statements?


In a common law suit against CPA firm where a plaintiff asserts that the CPA firm has committed actual fraud or is grossly negligent (constructive fraud), the best defense that the CPA firm can use is lack of scienter.


Scienter indicates actual knowledge of fraud. The CPA firm on the basis of good faith, can defend itself by submitting that it lacks both actual and constructive knowledge of falsity of the financial statements when providing the unqualified opinion, i.e, Scienter. However, the CPA firm cannot escape a negligence law suit based on this defense.

REG618242

In a jurisdiction with an accountant-client privilege statute, to whom may a CPA turn over working papers without a client's permission?


client consent is not needed is during review of professional practice (quality review) by AICPA or a state CPA society. (Mnemonic: IRIS scan)



Options (a) is incorrect because information cannot be shared with a purchaser of CPA's practice.

REG618263

Which of the following statements is generally correct regarding the liability of a CPA who negligently gives an opinion on an audit of a client's financial statements?

Therefore, when a CPA negligently gives an opinion on the financial statements, he would be liable to a third party that he knows would rely on the opinion.


CPA is not liable to foreseeable parties in a negligence law suit. A foreseeable party is any unknown and unnamed third party who may rely on the financial statements audited by the CPA.

REG618762

According to the AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services, which of the following identifies the requirements for a tax advisor who believes that a taxpayer penalty might be assessed related to a position on a tax return?

When completing a return with the possibility of a taxpayer penalty being assessed, a tax advisor should inform the taxpayer of potential penalties and advise to disclose the position on the tax return. Note that the final decision of whether or not the position is disclosed on the return rests with the taxpayer and not the tax advisor.

REG618627

Thorp, CPA, was engaged to audit Ivor Co.’s financial statements. During the audit, Thorp discovered that Ivor’s inventory contained stolen goods. Ivor was indicted and Thorp was subpoenaed to testify at the criminal trial. Ivor claimed accountant-client privilege to prevent Thorp from testifying. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Ivor’s claim?

Ivor can claim accountant-client privilege only in states that have enacted a statute creating such privilege, provided the privilege statue is used to protect the CPA and not the client. However, in general, information/discussions between client and CPA is considered confidential and not privileged, allowing CPAs to reveal information based on subpoenas, etc. Privileged communication is not recognized under common law.

REG618900

With respect to any given tax return, which of the following statements is correct?


According to Treasury Regulation 301.7701-15, a tax return preparer is defined as "any person who prepares for compensation, or who employs one or more persons to prepare for compensation, all or a substantial portion of any return of tax or any claim for refund of tax under the Internal Revenue Code (Code)." This can include a signing preparer and any number of nonsigning preparers.

REG618903

A husband prepared his own tax return as married filing separately. His wife hired a CPA to prepare her tax return as married filing separately and asked the CPA not to disclose the information to anyone. The CPA was not retained by the husband for any tax work. The husband believed that his wife's tax return was negligently prepared and that he was financially harmed. He hired an attorney, without his wife's consent, to pursue a negligence claim against the CPA. The CPA hired an attorney to defend against the negligence claim. To which party, if any, may the CPA disclose the wife's tax return information without the wife's consent?


In simple terms a husband believes that the tax preparer of his wife has not prepared her return properly. So the question is asking for CPA's defense which is the party the CPA can show the prepared tax return to. Even husband is third party so he can't show it to him without his wife's consent but the CPA's lawyer/attorney is gonna defend him he has to show the return to his attorney and it can be done without wife's consent

REG618303

A partnership agreement must be in writing if


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Partnership agreement is required to be in writing only when the partnership term exceeds one year. This is as per the statute of frauds.

Option (a) is incorrect because partner's capital contribution over $500 does not require written agreement. As per statute of frauds, a written agreement is only required in case of sale of goods worth $500 or more.

Option (c) is incorrect because a partnership involving real estate sales require written evidence; only an intention to own real estate does not require a written agreement between partners.

REG618304

In a general partnership, a partner's interest in specific partnership property is


In a general partnership, all partnership property including those purchased in the partnership name or with partner funds, belong to the partnership and partners have rights to use such property. These rights are not transferable, except in the case of death of a partner, upon which the right to use partnership property is transferred to the deceased partner's estate. Any further selling or pledging of partnership property requires unanimous consent of all partners.

REG618308

Blake, a partner in QVM, a general partnership, wishes to withdraw from the partnership and sell her interest to Nolan. All of the other partners in QVM have agreed to admit Nolan as a partner and to hold Blake harmless for the past, present, and future liabilities of QVM. As a result of Blake's withdrawal and Nolan's admission to the partnership, Nolan

In general a partner can transfer only his or her interest in profits to another party without requiring approval of other partners. No other rights such as right to use partnership property or right to participate in management are transferable.


However, when a partner withdraws from a partnership and a new partner is admitted to the partnership as a general partner, the new partner will receive the rights to participate in the management of the business. Therefore, Nolan who is newly admitted to the QVM partnership as general partner, has the right to participate in QVM's management.

REG618322

Which of the following actions may a corporation take without its stockholders' consent?


However, purchase of 55% of another corporation's stock which is neither a merger nor a consolidation does not require approval of shareholders.

REG618326

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to a limited partnership?


A general partner of a limited partnership is responsible for the management of the partnership and has unlimited liabilities. A general partner can also be a creditor of the partnership, whether secured or unsecured.

REG520040

  1. An individual files a tax return for calendar year 1 on 4/15/year 2 showing taxes due of $57,000. The individual made no payment with the return. When would the statute of limitations for collection after assessment of this tax expire?

7) The statute of limitations for collection of tax that is unpaid is 10 years from assessment. The collection may be made by levy or court proceedings. Accordingly, the due date for collection of taxes due is 4/15/Year 12.

  1. An individual hand delivers his original tax return for the calendar year 1, 2, and 3 on 4/15/year 5. When does the statute of limitations for assessment of tax on the earliest year expire?

5) The statute of limitations for the IRS to assess tax on an individual income tax return is the later of (i) three years after the due date of the return or (ii) three years after the return is filed. As the Year 1 tax return was filed on 4/15/Year 5, later than its original due date of 4/15/Year 2, we must go with limitation (ii). Accordingly, the statute of limitations for assessment of tax for Year 1 tax return would expire on 4/15/Year 8.

REG620121


  1. A. Ace Automobile Co. would lose a suit brought against ACH Associates because Hook, as a general partner, has no authority to bind the partnership



B. Ace Automobile Co. would win a suit brought against ACH Associates because Hook’s authority continues during dissolution

(B) - When a partnership is dissolved, it is generally advisable to provide a notice of dissolution to indicate termination of actual and apparent authority of the partners. An actual notice is required for each of the third parites that have dealt with the partnership in the past. A constructive noitce on the other hand, is a public notice, such as a notice in a newspaper, given to elimiate apparent authority with third parties who have not dealt with the partner or the partnership. Here Ace Automoblie Co, is a third party that has dealt with ACH partnership in the past and therefore, would require an actual notice of termination of ACH partnership. Absence of such notice, ACH is bound by the actions of Hook who displays apparent authority, even though the partnership was terminated at the time of the contract (contract with Ace signed in Oct 20X2, where as partnership terminated in Sept 20X2). Therefore, Ace will win a suit it brings against ACH.

6.


A. ACH Associates and Hook would be the only parties liable to pay any judgment recovered by Ace Automobile Co




B. Anchor, Chain, and Hook would be jointly and severally liable to pay any judgment recovered by Ace Automobile Co

(B) - General partners of a partnership are jointly and severally liable for contracts and debts resulting to the partnership through actual or apparent authority of the partners. Therefore, all the partners would be jointly and severally liable for any judgment recoverable by Ace automobiles. Ace would first attempt recovery from the partnership [ unless it is bankrupt] and recover any remaining amounts from the partners.