Does it amount to taking unfair advantage of a reputation when a trader uses a sign that is similar to a registered trade mark with a reputation, and that sign is not confusingly similar, in such a way that (i) the essential function of providing a guarantee of origin is not impaired, (ii) their is no tarnishing or blurring of reputation, (iii) the trade mark owner's sales are not impaired, (iv) the trademark owner is not deprived of any reward, but (v) the trader gets a commercial advantage from the use of the sign?
Although Jacob LJ explicitly said that the answer should be no, the CJ took a contrary view.